Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 03:21
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Jason Sudeikis Pays Tribute To His Late Uncle George Wendt: “I Love Him Dearly” - Deadline
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Are you offended if Democrats call Republicans "weird"?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Poland election: Conservative historian Nawrocki wins presidential vote - BBC
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.